Published On: Tue, Dec 18th, 2012

INDO-EUROPEANS 2: NATURAL HISTORY OF LANGUAGES

All non-African humans and their languages can be traced to about a thousand individuals in South Asia 60,000 years ago. Two events during the Ice Age, a gene mutation and a major natural catastrophe played a pivotal role.

By Dr. Navaratna Srinivasa Rajaram (NS Rajaram)

 Aryan to Indo-European

FOXP2 'speech' gene

FOXP2 ‘speech’ gene

Ever since Sir William Jones in 1786 noticed remarkable similarities between Sanskrit and European languages, the question of how people from Sri Lanka and Assam to Ireland and Iceland happen to speak languages clearly related to one another has remained one of the great unsolved problems of history. The usual explanation, at least in India is the famous, now infamous Aryan invasion theory or the AIT. It claims that bands of invading ‘Aryan’ tribes brought both the ancestor of the Sanskrit language and the Vedic literature from somewhere in Eurasia or even Europe.

This was the result of scholars assuming that the ancestors of Indians and Europeans must at one time have lived in a common region speaking a common language before they spread across Asia, Eurasia and Europe carrying their language which later split into different dialects and languages. They called these speakers Indo-Europeans and their languages—from North India to Europe—members of the Indo-European family. They called the original language Proto-Indo-European or PIE, a term sometimes applied to its speakers also.

European linguists soon followed up on these ideas but in their newfound enthusiasm committed two egregious blunders. First, they borrowed the Sanskrit word Arya which only means civilized and turned it into a geographical and then a racial term by applying it to the people and languages of North India. (The correct term for North India is Gauda, just as Dravida means South India.) Next, they placed South Indian languages in a totally different category called the Dravidian family excluding them from nearly all discourse about Indo-Europeans. In reality South Indian languages are much closer to Sanskrit in both grammar and vocabulary, whereas with European languages it is limited to vocabulary.

Scientifically determined migration map

Scientifically determined migration map

This point—the closeness of the so-called Dravidian languages to Sanskrit—needs to be emphasized because keeping the two separated continues to be part of a political and academic agenda. In truth, there are no reasons to suppose that Gauda and Dravida languages including Sanskrit had ever remained in separate exclusive domains. Some covert Aryan theorists like Thomas Trautmann go to the extent of claiming that the Dravidian family was ‘discovered’ by Bishop Robert Caldwell in 1835, just as Sanskrit was ‘discovered’ by Jones in 1786. The truth is by then they had a two thousand year history of coexistence, and at no time were people of the south ignorant of Sanskrit.

The Aryan myth and the idea of the invasion (AIT) were taught as history for nearly a century until archaeologists discovered the Harappan or the Indus Valley civilization. It continues to be taught in one form or another in spite of the many contradictions highlighted by archaeologists like Jim Shaeffer and B.B. Lal as well as natural scientists like Sir Julian Huxley L. Cavalli-Sforza and others. Politics and entrenched academic interests have succeeded in keeping alive this two hundred year old ad-hoc hypothesis but science may have put an end to its survival while at the same time opening a vast new window on the origin and spread of Indo-Europeans.

Recent discoveries in natural history and population genetics, especially in the past two decades have changed our understanding of Indo-European origins in ways that were totally unexpected. The picture, still a bit hazy, highlights the fact that theories like the AIT are naïve and simplistic. To begin with they very greatly underestimate the time scales involved and also ignore the revolutionary impact of natural history on humans in the past hundred thousand years. It is science, not linguistic theories that help us unlock the mystery of Indo-Europeans.

Toba eruption, comparison

Toba eruption, comparison

A volcano and a gene mutation

Our story takes us to Africa some hundred thousand years ago. Our ancestors, called ‘anatomically modern humans’ have been located in fossils in East Africa dating to about that time or somewhat earlier. We were not the only humans then existing: there were several other ‘humanoid’ species in Asia and Africa among which the now extinct Neanderthals are the best known. What separates us from them is we have survived and they have not. In addition we are a speaking species with language without which civilization as we know it is inconceivable. So it is the origin of spoken language that we must seek and not just phonetic similarities in surviving languages.

This means, before speaking of Indo-European, Proto-Indo-European or any other language, we must ask ourselves when did humans begin to speak in the first place? The answer is provided by the discovery of the mutation of a gene knows as FOXP2. It is a complex ‘transcription’ gene that controls both verbalization and grammar. The time when the mutation occurred cannot be pinpointed but based on the evidence of the extinction of all other human species following the Toba super-volcanic eruption about 73,000 years ago, we may place it around 80,000 years before present.

Then, around 74,000 years ago, there was a massive volcanic eruption on the island of Sumatra known as the Toba Explosion. It is the greatest volcanic explosion known, nearly 3000 times the magnitude of the 1980 Mount St. Helen’s explosion. It resulted in a 6,000 year long freeze causing the extinction of all the human species on the planet except a few thousand of our ancestors in Africa and the Neanderthals. In particular, all non-speaking humanoids became extinct. As a result, only speech capable humans survived this catastrophe. This means all of us are descended from this small group of speech capable Africans. (Neanderthals became extinct 30,000 years ago.)

Indo-Europeans, two waves

Toba recreation

Toba recreation

This was the situation until about 65,000 years ago when small groups of our African ancestors made their way to South Asia traveling along the Arabian coast. All non-Africans living today are descended from these one thousand or so original settlers in South Asia. They flourished in a small area for some ten thousand years in South-Central India. Their small number living in a small area meant a single language would have sufficed for their needs. This was the primordial language of our ancestors. My colleagues and I call it Proto-Afro-Indian. No trace of it has survived.

For the next ten thousand years they led a precarious existence by hunting and gathering. About 52,000 years ago there was a dramatic warming in climate. This led to increase in both population and territory. It was followed by a mass extinction of animals probably due to over-hunting. Shortly after this, about 45,000 years ago or so, small groups left the Indian subcontinent in search of better hunting territory and made their way to Eurasia and Europe. These are the first Indo-Europeans. The language they took with them, possibly more than one, was descended from the primordial Afro-Indian became the first Indo-European. We have no idea what it was like.

Simplified map of the spread of humans

Simplified map of the spread of humans

All this took place during the last Ice Age or what scientists call the Pleistocene. Towards the end of the Ice Age, about 11,000 years ago, agriculture originating in India and Southeast Asia replaced hunting-gathering leading to much larger populations. Important domestic animals including the horse were also domesticated in the region (There is no truth to the claim that horses were unknown in India before the Aryan invaders brought them.) There were now several languages in north and south India which my colleagues and I call Gauda and Dravida languages. (Arya means civilized and inappropriate for region or language.)

There were two major developments in the Indian subcontinent during the Holocene or the period after the Ice Age 10,000 years ago. First, there was intense activity leading eventually to the creation of the Vedas and the language that became Sanskrit. These were not dialects but carefully constructed by incorporating features found in both northern (Gauda) and southern (Dravida) sources. This accounts for the so-called Dravidian features found in the Vedas as well as the closeness of Dravidian grammars to Sanskrit grammar.

The other was a second wave of people out of India who took with them both Sanskrit related languages and agricultural skills along with domestic animals including rats and mice! This accounts for the closeness of Sanskrit to European languages, in vocabulary but not grammar. AIT advocates claim a reverse movement but this is convincingly refuted by genetic analysis of humans as well as domesticated animals. They show a movement out of the Indian subcontinent. Even linguistic arguments fail because while the Vedas show ‘Dravidian’ features, they show no traces of European or Eurasian influences. (Modern Indian languages on the other hand do show the influence of both English and Persian, testimony to their presence.)

This means there were two major waves of Indo-Europeans, both out of India into the north and west. We know of the first (c. 45,000 BCE) only from genetic studies of modern populations around the world. We have no idea what their languages were like. The second, and much more recent, occurred at the turn of the Pleistocene-Holocene transition some 10,000 years ago. It has left many traces in archaeology, genetics, culture, and above all in the Sanskritic imprint on the languages of Europe and Eurasia. This is supplemented by genetic and other scientific data relating to animals that accompanied them including of rats and mice!

India’s pivotal role, Sanskrit’s perfection

India was (and is) pivotal because of its strategic location and climate. Both land and sea routes—east-west as well as north-south—are accessible from India. Also, India enjoys a subtropical climate that allows both tropical and temperate flora and fauna to flourish. Further, relative to other large countries India has the largest arable land area and receives ample rainfall over a wide area.

Sanskrit and movements that led to it played a crucial role in the evolution and spread of Indo-European languages. Sanskrit itself evolved along two parallel tracks— Vedic and what became classical. Since the idea that it was brought by invading Aryans has been demolished by science, we must look to indigenous sources to understand its history. Unique conditions prevailing in India for tens of thousands of years until the end of the Ice Age proved congenial for creating the language of the Vedas and what later became literary Sanskrit.

Sanskrit enjoys a pivotal position among languages just as mathematics does in the sciences. This is because Vedic Sanskrit is the oldest surviving language whose origins may go back to the end of the Pleistocene and the beginning of the Holocene or 10,000 years. Then there is the perfection of its grammar (like Panini’s famous Ashtadhyayi) attained over millennia of cultivation. Sanskrit was a carefully created language to meet specific needs and its pristine form has been carefully preserved through the efforts of hundreds of generations of scholars. (‘Samskrita’ means composed, compiled or created.)

We can only speculate, but the stability and close-knit and relatively small population during these millennia must have been factors that contributed to the unmatched linguistic perfection of the Sanskrit language and the Rig Veda. Its creators must have realized that they had succeeded in creating something extremely precious, which made them go to great lengths to preserve its purity through their unique method of teaching from generation to generation.

This accounts for the perfection of phonetics and grammar found in Sanskrit and nowhere else. The grammar followed by Kalidasa 2000 years ago is the same as the one we use today. This is not true of any other language. (Just compare Shakespeare’s English with today’s English.) Some Eurocentric linguists find it hard to digest the fact that Sanskrit is central to their discipline. They have tried to relegate it to a secondary position by creating something called Proto-Indo-European or PIE from which they try to derive Sanskrit. This will not work because many different PIEs have been constructed over the last century, but there is only one Sanskrit preserved for thousands of years. Sanskrit can do without IE Studies (as it has done for thousands of years) but IE Studies will collapse without Sanskrit. PIE cannot save it.

Finale

As far as methodology is concerned, observant readers will have noticed that the approach outlined here reverses the usual procedure of looking at language similarities and then trying to infer movements and location of speakers, in the process creating artifacts like PIE. What is done here is the opposite: we use science, particularly natural history and genetics supplemented by archaeology and related fields to arrive independently at the movements, extinctions, ‘drifts and selective sweeps’ from which we go on to derive the spread of languages. This avoids the circularity involved in deriving movements from language similarities and then attributing those similarities to the movements.

Finally, the picture given here is by no means definitive but decidedly in better agreement with scientific data and the fossil record than linguistic theories like the AIT which must now be relegated to the dustbin of history. The goal at this time is to build a scientific framework: many details remain to be filled, but any new theory must account for scientific data, especially from natural history and genetics, and take also into account the vast time scales involved. Such momentous developments as the evolution and spread of languages over half the world cannot be squeezed into a few thousand years like the Biblical account of Creation in 4004 BC on which the AIT was based.

Acknowledgements: The author is happy to acknowledge suggestions and comments from Dr. Stephen Oppenheimer, Dr. David Frawley, Dr. Premananda Priyadarshi and Dr. Rosalie Wolfe.

_________

Dr. Navaratna Rajaram  is a scientist and historian. Ideas of the article are explored in greater detail in his forthcoming book Genes of Time and the Birth of History.

 

  • Dr. Vijaya Rajiva

    Remarkable ! The information provided in this article by Dr. Rajaram is new in terms of the scientific bases of his arguments for the rise and development of Sanskrit within the Indian subcontinent. He also points out the relevance of Sanskrit being a perfect language, that it was carefully constructed and hence the care and concern of those who constructed the language to transmit it faithfully. Not only the uniqueness of Sanskrit but also the reason why the Rig Veda was enjoined by our Rishis to be faithfully memorised and transmitted over the millenia can be explained by his thesis.

    • N.S. Rajaram

      Thank you. It also explains why they took such care to develop techniques like pada-patha, ghana-patha and the like to ensure faithful reproduction and transmission from one generation to the next.

  • Mohan Mahapatra

    This is astonishing and yet so logical, far more logical and convincing than the AIT which gives dates and movements but no evidence. Dr. Rajaram has also brought out nicely the circularity involved in postulating movements based on linguistic similarities and later attributing those same similarity to the movements!

  • Dr. Vijaya Rajiva

    Dr. Rajaram, these articles are novel and interesting enough to be actively propagated to the general readership. I am aware that you are working also on another work on Quantum Physics, I believe.

    However, it might be useful for some of us who are interested in the uniqueness of Sanskrit to write about the subject of your second article (briefly) with adequate references to the source and also request the editor of the publication to provide a hyperlinked url to the second article.

    The topic is too serious not to receive the publicity it deserves.

  • N.S. Rajaram

    I agree with Dr. Rajiva, but one person or even one forum cannot do everything. It must be taken to scholarly fora at two levels– Sanskritic and scientific. We must firm up the scientific basis, filling up a lot of gaps in natural history and archaeology that I have not touched here. In fact there was a third exodus c. 5000 years ago (post Mahabharata or early Harappan) to West Asia with the Kassites, Mittani and the Hittites that I may discuss in a future article. This is suggested by archaeology and inscriptions.
    Then there is the Sanskritic. How does it affect the evolution of etymology and grammar that led up to Yaska and Panini. The given dates are absurd and assume the AIT and the Rig Veda in 1200 BCE. Even those who claim to reject the AIT continue to use these dates. Scholars like Dr. Rajiva should take up these issues because I cannot.
    Thank you for raising this important point. We have nothing less than a revolution on our hands.

  • agath

    NSR – As usual you’ve come up with a fantastic article. But as far as my knowledge goes, there are certain things that you’ve mentioned appear contradictory to me.

    1. You say that the Dravidian languages are very close to Sanskrit which I totally agree. But at the same time I can show you tons of words in Tamil (may be you can in Kannada) which have no similarity or roots to either Sanskrit or for that matter any other language whatsoever. For example – “ondru” which means One in English. This has no roots in Sanskrit. Do you agree that the roots of Dravidian languages stem from something that’s not Sanskrit?

    2. Caldwell has a written about the root of Dravidian languages in his work titled “Dravida Mozhigalin Oppilakkanam”, where he argues that the other other 3 Dravidian languages (Telugu, Kannada & Malayalam) have their roots in Tamil. What are your thoughts about the same? While I agree that Caldwell might have purposefully done it to create a separate identity for Dravidians, I’m yet to see a critical review on Caldwell’s above mentioned work.

    3. You mention – “First, there was intense activity leading eventually to the creation of
    the Vedas and the language that became Sanskrit. These were not dialects
    but carefully constructed by incorporating features found in
    both northern (Gauda) and southern (Dravida) sources. This accounts for
    the so-called Dravidian features found in the Vedas as well as the
    closeness of Dravidian grammars to Sanskrit grammar” – incorporating features found in gauda and dravida sources? do you mean to say that these sources existed even before Sanskrit and Vedas or the other way round?

    • N.S. Rajaram

      Of course, earlier sources existed from which the best features were incorporated when the Vedic and Sanskrit were created. Humans had been a speaking species for over 50,000 years by the time Vedas began to preserve knowledge. So they are the culmination of millennia of effort not the beginning. This was noted by Sri Aurobindo, the most sensitive student of the Vedas in modern times.
      Bishop Caldwell had a political-cum-religious agenda. Like the theologian he was, he dressed up data to give the appearance of logical deduction. He admitted it later himself.
      Note also that Tamil alphabet is more limited than Kannada or Telugu and so words get more distorted. Dr. Swaminatha Iyer (not U Ve) in his book DRAVIDIAN THEORIES has a good deal to say about this.
      Also these are recent developments– about 2000 years or so. We don’t know what Gauda and Dravida languages (several) were like 10,000 years ago.
      Thank you for your comments. Our study has only begun.

  • The Rex

    “The time when the mutation occurred cannot be pinpointed but based on the evidence of the extinction of all other human species following the Toba super-volcanic eruptionabout 73,000 years ago, we may place it around 80,000 years before present.” – how are the two events related? Also, “In particular, all non-speaking humanoids became extinct” by a volcanic eruption – why so?

    • N.S. Rajaram

      The reason is not known and conversial. But their extinction is an established fact. We have no normal human species incapable of speech. We only know what happened not why. One possible explanation is what is known as selective (genetic) sweep. When a highly advantageous mutation takes place, it gives a major competitive advantage to the beneficiaries of that mutation who go on to dominate. Speech was such an advantage.
      You have asked a good question and needs to be studied.
      As far as Mouton’s comments on Hindus is concerned– I suggest he see a psychiatrist. He seems to be mentally sick or confused if not both.

      • The Rex

        So, another theory, that language developed after the extinction can also be equally true.

  • Mouton

    Why does this author call Indians Indo-Europeans? He certainly sounds like he believes the latter word has a higher status in his fantasy world.

    He has nothing to say about the Gypsies of Europe who left India about 1500 years ago.
    What are the contributions of these Indians from the homeland of Sanskrit to European civilization?

    There is no argument about the presence of Sanskrit origin words in Greek and Latin. That
    kind of thing is usually possible if learned people, thinkers and writers, from those European lands had access to Sanskrit writings and its vocabulary. Ordinary people migrating from India in antiquity would have ended up like the Gypsies in Europe today instead of contributing anything worthwhile to the language and culture of their new homelands.

  • Mouton

    Why does this author call us Indians Indo-Europeans? Is he trying to make us feel proud in some way known only to him? If he wishes to respond let him give a civil response. Let him not attack my illiteracy, ignorance and mental illness for asking.

    • N.S. Rajaram

      You (Mouton) have got it backwards. Indo-Europeans are a branch of Indians. They are people of Indian ancestry who left India and settled down in Eurasia and Europe. Indians are not Indo-Europeans, it is the reverse: Europeans are of Indian origin in language and genes. That is what science says. We must accept it just as we must accept that Indians are of African ancestry. We should of course be willing to change if new evidence says something different.

      • Mouton

        There is no such species as Indo-Europeans known to science or occult science. Indo-Europeans are not a branch of Indians as you state. Yes, Greek and Latin for example have words of Sanskrit origin. That does not make those Europeans a branch of Indians as you would like to claim. The word Indo-European was invented in the 19th century to describe a family of languages to distinguish them from say Semitic languages or Oriental languages.

        Europeans are not of Indian origin in language as you say any more than Indians who speak English are of British origin.

        Further you do not provide any useful information such as the following: How many words of Sanskrit origin are there in the Greek language, its writings, its dictionaries, its vocabulary?

        Europeans are not of Indian “origin” in genes either with emphasis on the word “origin”. These are wild absurd claims of yours based on your own junk gene science. Show any scientific source that says “Europeans are of Indian origin in genes.” In exactly those words. .

        Let me repeat. There are no Indo-Europeans. Greeks are Greeks not Indo-Europeans. They are not a branch of Indians. Their language belongs to the Indo-European – a word coined by colonial era scholars – family of languages.

        With your fanciful gene game you can have anything and everything with an anywhere and everywhere origin going in any which direction you please.

        The history of a people is not about their genes. As for the language they now depend on, yes. Like all colonized peoples, Indians too cannot exist without the language of their colonial rulers. Indians cannot run their government, the courts, the universities, the corporations and everything else that is the modern world in their own language.

        Gypsies in Europe are of Indian origin. They are hard proof of Indians settling in Europe. Millions of them are now living there. Although they are despised, they are probably living in better conditions than hundreds of millions of Hindus in India. You don’t want to say anything about them. Rather you get your highs from blowing smoke about Indians settling in Europe in great antiquity – say around 2000 BCE or thereabouts – and spreading their Sanskrit language and their mighty culture over there. For which there is no proof.

        When the Sarasvati river dried up, there was a mass migration of people from the Punjab region to various other parts within India, Most of the priestly class eventually settled in areas near the Ganga river on its eastern side. Some people did indeed leave India for nearby West Asia and Central Asia. They were not high-end Brahmins who you would readily associate with learning, language and culture than the other groups. In those days, high-end Brahmins were sworn never to set foot outside India they regarded as Punya Bhumi.

        • N.S. Rajaram

          You know nothing. Sanskrit and the Vedas are much older than the Sarasvati civilization. You can’t solve your contemporary problems– like your own low self esteem by rewriting history. I will respond to you any more of your inanities. You seem to be sick man and I am not a psychiatrist.

          • Mouton

            This is how you normally end. You don’t even know that the word Sanskrit does not appear anywhere in the Rigveda. Sanskrit was a name given to its language after the Vedic age ended. You suffer from a deep seated inferiority complex and from a heavy burden of insecurities. Apparently you spend most of your time living in the colonial era and its humiliations. To feel good you invent bogus ancient history and keep springing it on ignorant Hindus to make them feel good. You are ashamed to accept the truth. To you, others who go wherever the evidence takes them are suffering from low self-esteem and are sick.

            You cannot write all kinds of nonsense about the ancient history of India as you are doing just because you happened to be on the right side with many others in exposing the bogus AIT.

            There were two migrations out of India during the Vedic age. One was after the Battle of Ten Kings and the second one was after the Sarasvati river disappeared around 1900 BCE.

            At the end of the Battle of Ten Kings at least two tribes were forced out of the country. One to Iran. And another, according to some, eventually ended up in Ireland. Greek and Latin do not use an alphabet based on Sanskrit,
            or Sanskrit grammar, only some words. If anybody knows how many words, please post the number or percentage here. The tribe driven out of India into Iran after the Battle of Ten Kings may be the original source of those Sanskrit words in Greek and Latin. Maybe.

            Anyway it is laughable to say what you said:
            “Europeans are of Indian origin in language and genes. That is what science says.”

            You also said: “You know nothing. Sanskrit and the Vedas are much older than the Sarasvati civilization.” That wasn’t even the point of discussion in my post.

            Anyway, what exactly do you mean?

            The Vedic civilization lasted from about 4000 BCE until the Sarasvati stopped flowing around 1900 BCE or so. There was no other civilization in the region during that period only different phases of it – whatever be the names given to those phases.

  • P

    Mr. Rajaram, I have read that Indian tradition says Rama lived 867,000 years ago, during Dwapara Yuga I believe. And that he lived for at least 10,000 years. I have no reason to disbelieve it, and suspect the history of human civilization goes back much further than is generally acknowledged. And I guess that would make the Vedas and Sanskrit at least that old too. In general there seems to be a disconnect between what is stated in India’s ancient literature (including spiritual literature) with regards to timelines, technology, advanced civilizations, agriculture, animal domestication, spritual accomplishments, etc., vs. the current understanding based on what science has been able to discern so far. What do you think of this? Do you feel oral tradition is a valid source of historical information? I’ve long wondered if archaeologists/geologists/etc. curious about this looked into it, whether they would be able to find any evidence going back that far.

    Thanks,
    P

    • N.S. Rajaram

      It depends on who you read and their assumtions. Though a scientist, I will not disregard ancient tradition but use it as a guide. The present species of human cannot be taken beyond about 150,000 – 200,000 years in Africa. Until about 70,000 years ago there were other huminid (or humanoid) species excluding the Neanderthals. So there might be parallel histories and mythologies involving them or others.
      But 837,000 years for Ram etc cannot be fitted in the scientific framework that I am working in. Most historians in the world today will have difficult even with the time frames that I have proposed. We cannot — I cannot accept such extraordinary dates without solid evidence.

  • http://opsudrania.blogspot.com/ Tejpal

    I quite agree with DR NSR that one or two or even majority can’t do anything, when the rulers are too obsesed with Harvard, Oxford, or even Italiano wisdom. The ruler must be proactive and sensitive to its heritage. Hence I keep impressing that India needs a “Home Rule” Vis a Vis current corrupt foreign alien savvy regimes. Until and unless this happens, any achievement may be derogatory. For example, we should consider the Wharton Narendra Modi fiasco, which is engendered by nobody else than our Macaulay’s Children in Philadelphia. A sorry state of affairs, due to ill informed education. It is this current inimical UPA that is anti-national, though a big observation but true. We have its chamchas all around. Unfortunate, just a matter of time.

  • Vyasa

    /** But 837,000 years for Ram etc cannot be fitted in the scientific framework that I am working in.**/
    Fine sir.This clarification is fine enough.The scientific framework you are working in has learnt the importance of nitric oxide just few years back until when it believed and taught that nitric oxide was trash for humans, where as Bharatiya Rishis,scriptures incorporated’OM’ chanting and many other mantras in the traditional lifestyle of it’s citizens knowing their diverse benfits for human evolution in both inner &outer world .Sceintific framework you are working in believes& teaches Ptolemy,Bernoulli, Fibanocci, Newton, Pythagaros,Archemedies etc as Europen achievers when actually they learnt& plagiarised from Vedic repositoires.What you proposed is based on western science as western historians would be highly displeased with Indian version which is strenghtened by not just Puranic,astronomic but also archealogical evidence like Ram Setu .
    Please also refer to ‘Genesis of human race’ by Kota Venkatachalam garu to understand human evolution 195 crores of years back in Bharat which debunks your African theory .

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